Question

Must towns give sufficient notification?

Asked 19 March 2012 · needs an answer

The question

I have been living in a house in Fullerton, CA for two

years, and my wife for six. All this time, I have

never seen any signs forbidding people from parking

there overnight, and I along with many residents on the

street have parked overnight there this whole time.

This morning I woke up to see a parking ticket on my

car, which was parked directly in front of my house.

When I called the city, they told me that it has been a

city ordinance since 1928 that there is no overnight

parking anywhere in the town.

Isn't it incumbent upon the town to make sure that

people are told such a law before they give them a

ticket for it? There is absolutely no signage anywhere

that states or even suggests that overnight parking is

not legal, and there is no way of knowing the city

ordinance without wading through craploads of

irrelevant city ordinances.

Doesn't the town have an obligation to post signage?

Also, not sure if it's relevant, but they put the wrong

address on the ticket. They said I had parked at 3901

when my car was parked at 3905 (in fact, directly in

front of a sidewalk stencil that says 3905). Could

this be a technicality?

From the LawyerCentral forum archive. Originally posted 19 March 2012 on a legal forum that has closed. Names and contact details were removed. See the original (Internet Archive).

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