The question
I have been living in a house in Fullerton, CA for two
years, and my wife for six. All this time, I have
never seen any signs forbidding people from parking
there overnight, and I along with many residents on the
street have parked overnight there this whole time.
This morning I woke up to see a parking ticket on my
car, which was parked directly in front of my house.
When I called the city, they told me that it has been a
city ordinance since 1928 that there is no overnight
parking anywhere in the town.
Isn't it incumbent upon the town to make sure that
people are told such a law before they give them a
ticket for it? There is absolutely no signage anywhere
that states or even suggests that overnight parking is
not legal, and there is no way of knowing the city
ordinance without wading through craploads of
irrelevant city ordinances.
Doesn't the town have an obligation to post signage?
Also, not sure if it's relevant, but they put the wrong
address on the ticket. They said I had parked at 3901
when my car was parked at 3905 (in fact, directly in
front of a sidewalk stencil that says 3905). Could
this be a technicality?
From the LawyerCentral forum archive. Originally posted 19 March 2012 on a legal forum that has closed. Names and contact details were removed. See the original (Internet Archive).
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