Question

drug manufactoring

Asked 9 January 2011 · 1 answer

The question

I have been told that more than one possion charge eaquals a second manufacturing charge how can that be true if there has never been a first manufacturing charge?

From the LawyerCentral forum archive. Originally posted 9 January 2011 on a legal forum that has closed. Names and contact details were removed. See the original (Internet Archive).

1 answer

Visitor answer 10 January 2011

I assume you mean "possession" charge.

I'm not a legal expert, but possession and

manufacturing are very different things. Manufacturing

or intent to distribute are much, much more serious

offenses.

However, if you are in possession of a large amount of

a controlled substance, the police may deem it is too

large for personal use and charge you with intent to

distribute.

I'm honestly a little confused by what you are asking.

Multiple possession charges don't turn into a different

charge, it merely carries more severe penalties if you

are a repeat offender. I think you got some bad

information.

Add your answer

Answers are reviewed before they appear. They are general information from visitors, not legal advice, and do not create a lawyer-client relationship. Do not include private details.

Need a lawyer for this?

See attorneys near you who handle questions like this one.

Ask a lawyer

← All questions